Texas BA II:
BGN Mode
I/Y = 1
PMT = 30000
N = 53
FV = 0
[CPT] PV = -1241825.83
\frac{1,241,825.83}{1.01^{20}} = 1,017,731.49
Texas BA II:
BGN Mode
I/Y = 1
PMT = 30000
N = 53
FV = 0
[CPT] PV = -1241825.83
\frac{1,241,825.83}{1.01^{20}} = 1,017,731.49
anyone got 798k human capital for Paul @age 45 on page 340???
If for needs method we need to use the BGN mode, then in the exhibit 6, the PV of HC for both is calculated using end mode. I am confused when to use BGN and end mode?