Hi all,
In the 2014 AM exam, question 1E asks for the investment portfolio’s percentage return after taxes. The solution calculates this as:
r* = r x (1 - wartr), so pretax return times one minus the weighted average realized tax rate. The solution ends there.
In the curriculum it says that this will overstate the after tax return since the portion of unrealized capital gains taxes is not accounted for (in this case it’s 9% of the pretax return).
Shouldn’t the solution also incorporate this future tax liability? Or should we assume that this has to be explicitly mentioned in the question?