Hi,
While reviewing some past AM papers I noted that I was confused by the guideline answer provided by the Institute. I understand the question and my justification is correct, but I am unsure why they are dividing the difference between the Domestic RF and Foreign RF rates by 2. The data table already provides the 6 month risk free rate, which is equivalent to our holdings period of 6 months. Therefore, I am unsure as to why the calculation to determine the forward premium/discount (IRP) is then divided by 2.
i.e. (2.5% - 5%)/2 = -1.25%
I would understand why we would divide by 2 if they were given as annual risk-free rates but they are already given as the 6-month risk free rate.