Hi all, i have a question on last year’s AM test from Q5 - Part C. Why would the answer be buy-and-hold in a flat and oscillating market? In my mind, it wouldn’t matter if the individual is willing to bear more risk with larger wealth. For example, if client started with 90/10 equity to cash, in a flat and oscillating market it’s going to remain 90/10. In a constant mix, he atleast can take advantage of mean reversion and accumulate gains, and remain in a 90/10 “constant-mix”. Can someone further explain this?