Hi guys,
I have a question, hopefully you can help… Assuming flat yield curve of 6%, a 3 yr bond issued at par with annual coupon of 6%. What is the bonds expected return if trader predicts yield curve will 1 year from today will be a flat 7%…
I thought answer would be calculated as { (6/1.06) + (6 / 1.07^2) + (106 / 1.07^3) } / 100, less 1
Answer shown is …
{6 + (6 / 1.07) + (106 / 1.07^2) } / 100, less 1
I don’t understand why the first cash flow is not discounted at spot rate at time and why subsequent cash flows are a period behind… If anyone out there could help me understand why it would be greatly appreciated… Cheers for taking time to read this post