if we first get pre-tax nominal return and want to solve for after-tax real return
we use (pre-tax nominal return-inflation) * (1-%tax) ______1
or pre-tax nominal return*(1-%tax) - inflation ______2
from the CFA text i think method1is correct what im confused is
if we have to use method 1 , if we have to revert ( solve for after-tax nominal , given after-tax real)
then we have to : [after-tax real / (1-%tax)] + inflation then multiply with (1-%tax) again , right?
please help , may be hard to understand my typing (i’m suck in english)
but i think it’s quite confusing.
when we solve for pretax nominal return > we use (after-tax real return /(1-%tax) right?
so if the exam ask after-tax nominal return > do we have to revert (after-tax real return)/(1-%tax) to pretax real return then add inflation and multiply with (1-%tax) again?
or just simply add inflation to after-tax real return
So it is more intuitive to look at it this way. Your portfolio grows at least at the inflation rate, all of which is taxable in a regular taxable account. To illustrate, say, you have $1M portfolio. Its value grew by 5%, part of which is due to inflation. So your real return is 2%. The taxes would be imposed on the entire gain, not just the real portion.
I am not sure about a deferred account, though… I dont know why we need to speak in real terms here… you will be taxed on the entire gain when you retire… so I am confused here a bit…