I’ve been looking over the Treynor Measure and Jensen’s Alpha and I am slightly confused. Maybe someone can enlighten me?.. (please correct me below where applicable)
Taking into account the efficient frontier and the two fund seperation theorem; every investor will use the same risky portfolio (the market portfolio) and combine it with the risk free asset.
The expected returns will differ primarily on the choice of weightings of the market portfolio and the risk free asset.
“Jensen’s alpha for Portfolio P is calculated as Rp - [Rf + B(Rm - Rf)] and is the percentage portfolio return above that of a portfolio (or security) with the same beta as the portfolio that lies on the SML.”
In a CAPM world…“the expected returns on all portfolios , well diversified or not, are determined by their systematic risk.”
So I guess my question is, according to this theory, how can a portfolio have the same beta to a portfolio that lies on the SML but earn a higher expected return? or equivalently have a steeper slope (measured by the Treynor measure) than the SML?