Hi everyone, I need some help with one example…Anyone willing to explain it to me step by step?
You need to work out how much was redeemed / invested in the fund each year.
CFO - start = 15m
If the fund return 15% you would expect value 15 x 1.15 = 17.25
But value at tear end is 20 . Difference 20 - 17.25 = 2.75 must have been invested.
C01 = 2.75
Follow that logic through for subsequent years to calculate any investments or withdrawls.
Value end year 3 = 5 x 1.1 = 5.5
2 Likes
I also hope the question told you to assume yearend external CFs. 
Thank you !! 
Also, in examples where I am depositing different sum of money each month for a period of 5 months ( interest rate compounded monthly) I looked through solution and the formula that was used was basic future single cash flow , applied 5 times (for each month independently) and in the end what is supposed to be calculated is the money collected after those 5 months.However, I am not sure why non- annual compounding method is not a good option for this kind of question?
you need to show us the question with full wording
Well here they want the to know how much you have at the end june / 1st July.
There is no need to go any further.
I would put this is CF function.
C01 = 1,500
C02 = 2,000
etc
I = 0.5
CPT NFV
Thanks a lot! 
For those of you with the older version of the BAII that does not have the NFV feature, calculate the NPV and roll it up with 6 months interest.