Could anyone explain me this statement that “bond trading at a premium loss in the event of default is likely to be larger”?
What are your thoughts on it?
Thanks. I have understood reasoning behind the loss. The reasoning is that since we have bought bond at premium and if the defaults occurs then it will lead to a loss.
But why will the loss be “larger”?
Because we bought at a premium and paid higher price.
Bingo!
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