See exhibit below:
“Brad Stevens, CFA, is the director of Fixed Income at Pinehurst Capital. He has been hired to manage a portfolio of fixed income bonds for Yankee Inc., a client of Pinehurst. Stevens has been asked to determine a strategy to retire Yankee’s debt liabilities over the next ten years. The liabilities have a market value of USD 750 million, a modified duration of 6.25 years and a BPV of USD 468,750. Yankee has just finalized a small asset sale and received USD 775 million of net proceeds to fund the new mandate. Stevens builds a portfolio of US government bonds to immunize the liabilities with a modified duration of 6.5 years and a BPV of USD 503,750. Pinehurst allows Stevens to use five-year Treasury futures to close the duration gap. The five-year Treasury note has a BPV per 100,000 in par value of 50.28 and a conversion factor of 0.77.”
For this question we have to work out how many futures contracts we have to purchase.
I get how the process works and what formula to use, my question is the extract says that the Treasury note has a BPV of 50.28. How do we know whether this refers to the BPV of the CTD or BPV of the futures contract?
My initial inclination was that this was the BPV of the future but the answer implies it refers to the CTD
Not sure if it’s just me or if it’s another situation of a question being poorly worded
Thanks