Little confused about immunization risk.
From the text Page 43. [content removed by moderator]
I don’t think this is true all the time. How can that even be the case?
My logic below.
Example (Short rates decline and Long rates increase)
Both experience a decline of the portfolio value at the end of the investment horizon below the target investment value for two reasons:
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Lower reinvestment rates.
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Experience a capital loss.
BUT, decline substantially higher for barbells for two reasons:
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Barbell experiences lower reinvestment rates longer than the bullet portfolio does.
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More of the barbell is outstanding at the end of the investment horizon leading to a larger capital loss.
Summary: the bullet portfolio here has less exposure to changes in the interest rate structure (same as CFA books)
Then, this is where I’m at a loss. Example (short rates increase and long rates decrease)
In this case wouldn’t the barbell portfolio have less risk then an bullet portfolio?
I would think
decline substantially higher for BULLETS (Therefor Riskier)- the opposite of the above reasons. With longer duration, the capital gain by the barbell would be greater than a bullet and the barbell would experience higher reinvestment rates for a longer time.
Along with that, would BOTH experience an increase in portfolio value at the end of the investment horizon above the target investment value?
Read it enough times where I’m just confused now. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks