Callable and Puttable Bond Curve Questions

Hi,

I’ve a question about the price v.s. yield curve of callable and puttable bonds. The callable bond will show a negative convexity at lower yield and its price will be lower than the straight bond, and the puttable bond will show a more positive convexity at higher yield and its price will be higher than the straight bond.

Also the straight bond price will go to zero as yield approaches infinity. I dont understand why the puttable bond will approach its put price instead of zero as the yield approaches infinity. I think all the cash flow, no matter its the strike price or original cash flow will be discounted towards zero. Could anyone explain this to me?

If the bond is putable at, say, par, why would you sell it on the open market at, say, $990 when you could put it back to the issuer for $1,000?

I understand this logic if I dont consider the calculation part. I get confused when using the binominal tree method to think about this, if the r is very big, then I would expect to get a zero price due to the discount back to time 0.

Say at time 1, due to higher r, the discounted cash flow is very small $1, and my put price is $1,000. Then I will put, and discount the $1,000 back to time 0, it should be closer and closer to 0 as r moves up?

When you discount the payment of $1,000 (plus the coupon) at time 1, you don’t use the time 1 discount rate; you use the time zero discount rate.