Hi guys,
This is a question for a blue boxed question from Institute, CFA. 2018 CFA Program Level II Volume 5 Fixed Income and Derivatives. CFA Institute, 07/2017:
Given the following details:
-
TTM: 3 years
-
Coupon: 3.5% annually
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Type of Bond: Callable
The question is:
The price of Bond X is affected:
- only by a shift in the one-year par rate.
- only by a shift in the three-year par rate.
- by all par rate shifts but is most sensitive to shifts in the one-year and three-year par rates.
The answer is:
“The main driver of the call decision is the two-year forward rate one year from now. This rate is most significantly affected by changes in the one-year and three-year par rates.”
What bothers me is how come par rates other than maturity matched rate and the 1 year rate have an impact on the price of the bond though its insignificant?
Thanks in advance for any response!!!