The capital allocation line is a straight line from the risk-free asset through the:
A. global maximum-return portfolio
B. optimal risky portfolio
C. global minimum-variance portfolio
The answer given by the Notes is B.
However, let me quote this from the Curriculum: ‘In other words, a combination of the risk-free asset and a risky asset can result in a better risk–return trade-off than an investment in only one type of asset because the risk-free asset has zero correlation with the risky asset. The combination is called the capital allocation line’ . So this means CAL is defined as the combination of a risk-free asset and a risky asset (portfolio).
Therefore, I think C should also be a correct answer.
Am I correct? Can anyone please help me with this?
So in terms of CML, B should be the correct answer, shouldn’t it?
And I agree with you but is it correct to say that the straight lines from the risk-free asset through optimal risky portfolio and through global minimum-variance portfolio are both CAL?
If the question asked about the CML, then B is the correct answer.
Yes.
A straight line through the risk-free asset and _ any _ risky asset is a CAL for that risky asset. But not all CALs go through the global minimum-variance portfolio; only one does.