Hello guys, sorry to bother but I can not find an answer to a really basic question, apologies also for the mistake I could make writing in english as it is not my mother tongue
Imagine a valuation of a project with expected cash flows ranging from year 0 to year 5. Year 0 takes into account investing cash flows and year 1 to 5 operating cash flows. For example, -100;+100;+100;+100;+100;+100
It seems that the convention is to discount the investing and operating cash flows as if they were registered at the beginning of period (i.e. beginning of each year) to arrive to a valuation of the project. The NPV of the example above would be 279 using this method
I could imagine investing cash flows taking place at the beginng of year 0… but I think operating cash flows are calculated on an end-of-the-year basis. Therefore the Year 1 100 cash flow from my example above should have to be discounted back two periods (year 0 and year 1) insted of just one period (year 0) to calculate its present value,
why anybody does this?
In the section 5.1 of CFA level II Volumen 3 is stated that the operating cash flows of the example are calculated using an end-of-the-year basis but then the project valuation consider them as of they were calculated at the beginning of the year (the NPV is 162,217)
am I missing something?..
Thank you,