Matilda Kim is a fixed income portfolio manager at Global Investment Ltd. (GIL). She is
responsible for managing the Income Opportunities Fund (IOF), an actively managed
fixed income fund with a mandate to invest in sovereign and corporate bonds and their derivatives.
Kim expects an economic slowdown that is not currently priced into fixed - income securities. She intends to profit from her view by trading a high-yield CDS index (CDX) contract, the details of which are displayed in Exhibit 2
Kim buys $10,000,000 notional value of protection using the CDX contract. Kim’s view
turns out to be correct and after 12 months the CDS spread on the HY CDX contract
has doubled and the contract’s spread duration is 3.77.
The initial upfront premium on the CDX contract used by Kim to profit from her view
on an economic slowdown is closest to:
A) 1.5% paid to the IOF.
B) 7% paid to the IOF.
C) 7% paid by the IOF
Slowdown, so you buy protection on 5Y high-yield. And get a coupon higher than the spread, so, as a buyer, you get the difference between the coupon and the spread, multiplied by the duration, which is 7%.
I went for C: 7% paid by IOF, because Kim is the buyer, in my view. But they say:
HY CDS contracts have a fixed coupon standardized to 5%. The fair CDS spread for this contract is only 350 bps or 3.5%,; hence, the buyer of protection (which in this case is the IOF) is due an upfront premium payment equal to:
[(fixed coupon − CDS spread) × spread duration]
= [(5.00% – 3.50%) × 4.66] = 6.99%
Why is IOF the buyer, and not Kim?
Under the next question, which reads>
The total profit/loss from the CDX HY index trade is closest to:…
Under the explanation, they say: The fund is buying protection
I am confused… so the text clearly says, under Exhibit 2, that KIM buys the protection, but they go on that IOF does it… huh?