The solution to Q40, CFAI Mock 2015 (afternoon session), calculates effective interest as
= Principal * Rate * number of days/360 + (Spread - Exercise Price) * Notional Princpal (with no time adjustment)
Why is payoff calculated with no time adjustment? In the schweser books, the example also shows a time adjustment done for the payoff from the derivative. Logically also, the payoff should be prorated for the time period it pertains to.
Could someone please advise? There are so many inconsistencies!