i really don’t get it. On p. 514-515 is an example of mark-to-market currency forward contracts. It is fully clear to me. However, the calculations of the following Example 3 (e.g. Question 5) are different. Especially, why do we calculate in the text example: (1.6340-1.6100) x 10 Mio = + AUD 240,000 and in the examples this doesn’t work. There, they calculate it like 10 Mio / 1.6310 - 10 Mio / 1.6100
In the example on pg. 514, you are converting GBP to get to AUD, using the AUD/GBP rate, so you instead need to multiply through to for the conversion.
Actually, I believe you can use the general formula if you use the Price/Base currency notation. F(P/B) = (Spot(P/B)/1+r(F)) * (1+r(D))… you just have to remember that the domestic currency is the price and the foreign is the base and may need to flip these depending on what youre after.
I use the inverse for my calculation…but maybe it is not 100% the correct one since we have to rember that the bid in one notation is the inverse of the ask in the other notion et vice versa. However, here 0.79 is bid and ask at the same time?