“According to the policy, Aiklin allocates IPO shares to each investment manager and each manager has responsibility for allocating shares to accounts for which the IPO is suitable”
the question asks is the policy consistent with required and recommended CFA standards?
The correct answer is B: No, because the IPO policy disadvantages certain clients?
i don’t see any how certain clients would be disadvantaged…? I see there is no guidance how the managers will allocate the shares but am I missing something here? Why is B correct and not A?