Choosing the optimal risky portfolio?

In this diagram, why is P the optimal risky portfolio? Y is acheivable and provides a higher return. Why isn’t Y the optimal risky portfolio?

http://imgur.com/xF9rqOH

my two pennies: Y does not lie on the Markowitz efficient frontier. so it isn’t achievable without leverage on the risk-free rate.

Y would be the lowest-risk portfolio for an investor with a target return of Y.

Without leverage he would only be able to achieve X.

Yes, portfolio Y is only achievable borrowing at the risk-free rate, so you invest more than 100% of your capital in the risky portfolio.

What also means that is Y more risky than portfolio P.

True, but irrelevant.

P is riskier than A.

I don;t think its irrelevant, Y is more risky than P but has a higher return (same risk/return ignoring financing costs as any other point on the line).

The fact that Y has higher risk & return than P is, _ by itself _, irrelevant. P has higher risk & return than A; if higher risk & return made a portfolio suboptimal, P also wouldn’t be the optimal portfolio.

P is a (100%) risky portfolio. Y is part risky portfolio, part risk-free portfolio, not a (pure, 100%) risky portfolio. That’s the point.

learnin’ all the time!

OK, noted. Tangency of Markowitz’ s frontier through P is also irrelevant or not?

there is no better combination of all risky assets than P. There is only one optimal risky portfolio, P.

by combining with risk-free asset you get the tangency line to adjust to an investor’s risk aversion

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Yes, so far I’ve been teached such but there is a bit confusion in understanding S2000’s explanations to me, NHF.

Nope: it’s relevant, because it creates the CML. It’s the (purely) risky portfolio with the highest Sharpe ratio.

I’m sorry to hear that: I want all of my explanations to be crystal clear, no confusion at all.

I am confused by the statement I have highlighted. I thought Y was a leveraged portfolio meaning it is basically P with even more risky assests added by borrowing at the risk free rate.

It is. Nobody’s suggesting that it isn’t riskier than P.

But it includes shorting the risk-free asset; that portion of the portfolio isn’t risky.

^ok, I get what you are saying

Cool!