I am talking about reading 37 question 5, the question says to decide a company’s residual income above or below 0, it can compare net operating profit after taxes as a percentage of its total assets can be compared with its weighted average cost of capital (WACC).
where.on.earth.is.this.from??
I did the old fashioned Operating profit after tax -interest(1-t)-equity charge, but can someone help me understand the rational of the original question?