Its not really a specific area of the CFA question, but I know I should know the answer easily but I
m getting confused.
Les suppose a company earns $100MM during a year (as the result of their business activity… let’s say selling cars). The company closes its countable (fiscal) year the 31 of December each year, and it must pay 35% of tax earnings. So, on 30th of December it has to alternatives:
A) It subscribes $100MM to a special kind of fund, which allows the company to avoid from paying earning taxes that year, but with the condition of keeping funds invested for 2 complete years. Funds will have an annual return of 22%. (It might be some government-sponsored fund, which uses collected money to develop specific areas of the economy).
B) It pays $35MM to the government. Invests the rest, $65MM in a mutual fund, earning 26% each year during two years.
It’s obvious the first option is way better than the second one. But my doubt is about the comparison between both.
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In the first scenario, should I add a positive cash flow of $35MM ? Someone told me that since the company is avoiding the payment (or liability) of the taxes, it should count as positive cash flow. I this case, if we assume for simplification that returns are 0%, the company in case A at the end of the period will have $135MM, and at the end of case B it will have $65MM. However, I believe it would be double counting the same tax-exempt effect. Adding $35MM is only an accountable issue, not real cash flow. !!!
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What is the final result in each case?
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How am I supposed to show the comparison? I calculated the PV of the final results in each case, and would like to calculate the return of each one… but if I begin from $100MM in both cases, the return of option B is negative.
The most important question is “1”!!! Thanks for you help!