Confusing wording for fx question ith the US dollar currently trading at a forward premium and US interest rates lower than Spanish rates,

With the US dollar currently trading at a forward premium and US interest rates lower than Spanish rates, Delgado recommends trading against the forward rate bias to earn additional return from a positive roll yield. Identify two strategies Delgado should use to earn a positive roll yield. Describe the specific steps needed to execute each strategy.

"Delgado recommends trading against the forward rate bias to earn additional return from a positive roll yield. " - why is delgado recommending this? shouldn’t he be recommending to trade the forward rate bias? Why is this sentence here? I am so confused.

One of my answers to get a positive roll yield was to sell the higher priced forward and close it out at the lower price. I assumed this would be correct b/c the forwards should be in a contango situation since there is a forward premium for usd. Why is this not listed as one of the answer choices? Is my answer wrong?

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Ignore Delgados phrase on what to do. It is there to distract you.

US has lower rates (5%) , Euro higher (10%)
Assume spot rates at start USD/EUR = 1 (1 euro = 1 USD)

Carry trade borrow USD invest in EUR
Do not hedge
Hope fwd rate is not a predictor of spot rates as this will wipe out your gain.

If spot rates remain USD/EUR = 1
Turn 1.1 euro in 1.1 USD repay 0.05 USD interest
Gain $50,000

Trade fwd rate bias - sell prm currency buy discount.
US at premium, mean EUR at discount
Quote is USD/EUR
so market in backwardation

US rates 5%, Euro 10% Fwd rate 1euro = 0.95
Sell $950,000 fwd buy $1 Euro

Spot rate remains the same at expiry USD/EUR = 1
At expiry sell 1m Euro buy $1m
Gain $50,000

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wow! This is what you wrote down. As clear as possible. Delgado recommends trading against the forward rate bias because interest rates in the US are lower than in Spain and the dollar is trading at a forward premium.