When altering the portfolio mix with futures, say 20mil out of 100mil equity will be reallocate to fixed income. We use equity futures to adjust Beta to 0 to resemble that I first convert the position to cash and then that portion of “cash” will be convert to fixed income with certain duration.
Which got me wondering, why is it a different formula than shown for “Creating cash out of equity” ? In synthetic cash, if we want to convert say mid cap US equity (beta=1.2) to cash for 3 month using US mid cap equity contract (beta=1.29). We simply use -V(1+r)T/qf. Why we ignore the difference between the different beta of stock holdings and stock futures?
thanks in advance