Fixed income - credit analysis models - structure model - option analogy The expression for the value of a company’s debt (viewed in its entirety) equates the position of the company debt holders to holding a riskless bond that pays K with certainty at time T, and at the same time selling a European put option on the assets of the company. If the value of the assets is greater than the face value of debt, the put option will be out of the money (and therefore, not be exercised) - what if call option holder exercises it - As, Assets > FV of debt(bond) doesn’t call option holder excersise it ?
Yes.
If the company does well, the owners exercise the option (to stay in business) and pay off the debt.
If the company does poorly, the owners let the option expire: they liquidate the company and the debtholders are stuck with the loss.
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Great! now, what if the situation is vice versa…i mean when European put option is in the money ? what will be the payoff to debtholder?
That’s when the company does well. The option’s in the money, so they pay off the debt holders (according to the terms of the debt).
I got it. i wish if i could be full time student of yours!
Thanx a lot Sir!!!
Shouldn’t it be the other way round (from memory)? If the company does poorly, then the option holders exercise the put option at the strike price (equal to the face value of debt) to pay it off? On the other hand, if the company does well, then the holders of the option let it expire and pay off the debt from cash, while the option writers earn the RFR plus the credit premium in the form of the option price sold? That’s how I understood it.
Yes i Agree to this.
** if the company does poorly, you have a put option on the assets, would someone have to pay the difference to make the debt holder whole???
I’m struggling with this too.
Asset> debt = Pay off debt
Asset< debt = Debt ( loss)
Holding the debt and selling a european put on the assets. This would be beneficial is assets increase ( no need for the seller of the option to make yo whole).
So, if the assets decrease, the seller of the option would have to pay out the to cover for the difference between assets and debt.
“writing an european put on the asset” — again, this means that if the assets decrease, you will have to pay.
I don’t understand the put option analogy for a company’s debt. If you’re selling a put option and the company does well, the equity holders will exercise the option and the debt holders would have the obligation to buy the asset for K value?