Hello. In the schweser book, reading 16.2, it says “ If the cost of borrowing dollars synthetically via a swap is greater than the cost of direct USD borrowing, the foreign currency is said to be exhibiting negative basis. Most currencies have shown a negative basis against the dollar since the financial crisis. The implication is that the USD borrower must accept a lower interest rate on the foreign- currency interest payments it receives.”
Why would the usd borrower, ie the lender of the foreign currency be receiving a lower interest rate? Isn’t the reason why there’s a negative basis in the first place because the interest rate of the base currency (foreign ccy) higher than the interest rate of the quote currency (usd).