Q:The spot rate for British pounds is $1.76. The U.S. risk-free rate is 5.1 percent, and the U.K. risk-free rate is 6.2 percent; both are compounded annually. One- year forward contracts are currently quoted at a rate of $1.75.
im good with the logic of getting into position to arbitrage: buy GBP and enter forward contract to convert my GBP at higher price. Now according to curriculum i should take 1.76/1.062 and buy GBP 0.9416?
What? Spot rate divide by GBP risk free? Now what ?
If the forward rate were correct it’d be $1.76/£ × (1.051/1.062) = $1.7418/£. At $1.75/£, pounds are too expensive in the forward market. Thus, you want to sell pounds in the forward market, and buy them in the spot market.
So:
Borrow $100 @ 5.1% for one year. (You can borrow more if you’re daring.)
Convert that $100 to $100 ÷ $1.76/£ = £56.82.
Invest £56.82 @ 6.2% for one year; it grows to £60.34.
Convert £60.34 to £60.34 × $1.75/£ = $105.60.
Pay off your loan of $105.10, and go wild with $0.50!
Without reading the curriculum I cannot be sure, but it appears that they didn’t mean 1.76 ÷ 1.062 (which makes no sense), but the combination of 1.76 & 1.062; i.e., buy pounds & $1.76/£ and invest them at 6.2%; you’re then buying pound at 0.9416 (= 1/1.062) of their future value.
ok i think i get what they meant. What they are trying to say is, i want to hold this amount in £1/1.062 so that after 1 year, i will have £1. now what is the equivalent in $ @ current spot rate ? it is £0.9416 * $1.76 = $1.6573. I know i have to borrow this amount in US dollar