Currency hedge question, BSAS pm #44 **SPOILER

When calculating the G/L on the forward position in this problem, why dont you use the current spot rate? The answer for the gain on the forward is given as 125M/5.8265-125M/5.6140, where 5.8265 is the current rate on a 3 mo forward. It seems that the relevant rate would be the current spot, because the the old 3 mo forward has expired, no?