Currency Management

CFAI Book 5 page 226- EXample 1

I have a little problem understanding this example. I thought that the quote should be in price currency /per base currency and that base currency is the investor’s domestic currency. So for Eurozone investor, the base currency is Euro, right? But in this example 1 Problem 1 they say:

“Note that, given we are considering the eurozone to be “domestic” for this investor and given the way the RFX expression is defined, we will need to convert the CAD/ EUR exchange rate quote so that the EUR is the price currency.” I do not understand this. Can anybody explain this to me? Thanks a lot- appreciate it.

I can’t stand the currency stuff.

but the base currency for the Euro investor is the CAD, pricing currency is the EUR

so fx is the base currency and price currency is the domestic currency? I’m also finding this reading mind boggling. Anybody else in the same boat?