Currency swaps have two-sided current credit risk on settlement dates due to no netting, but how about potential credit risk? Is it also two-sided?
Schweser says American options, even though they can be exercised prior to expiration, do not have current credit risk unless actually exercised. Is this correct?
That sounds logical but CFAI seems to take different approach. There was one question on the mock exam and current credit risk of American option was its current market price. For reference, I don’t recall which mock was that but the price was 8.50.