Defined Benefit Accounting Adjusted operating profit

In Kaplan Book 2 Question 11 on page 217 within the self test for FRA, the question asks,

"After reclassifying operating and non-operating pension items appropriately, the adjusted operating profit is closest to:

A)23,775

B)24,026

C)25,075

Prior to the question this information is given:

Beginning Pension Obligation- $4,545

Beginning Plan Assets - $4,327

Service Costs - $404

Interest Costs - $275

Loss due to change in actuarial assumptions during the year - $42

Benefits Paid - $560

Expected return on plan assets - $200

Actual Return on plan assets $176

Contributions to plan $895

Unadjusted Income Statement Items

Operating Profit - $25,000

Interest Expense - ($1,300)

Other Income - $350

Income before taxes - $24,050

Would someone please breakdown the adjusted values especially why they get adjusted operating profit as: 25,000 + (404+275-200) - 404 = $25,075

The final answer is C

The procedure outlined in the curriculum is to add total pension expense to operating income, then subtract service cost; the other components of pension expense being nonoperating. So that’s what they did: (404 + 275 − 200) is total pension expense (service costs + interest costs − expected return on plan assets), 404 is service costs.

Thanks S2000magician. I see where I was confused. I thought the Unadjusted income statement items did not include pension costs at all when in fact the “adjusting” we are doing to the income statement is taking the non operating portion (interest expense and expected return) and adding them to a more appropriate account.

My pleasure.

Bingo!

We are adjusting for operating income. Why would we subtract current pension costs when in fact it is an operating expense? Why do we add nonoperating expenses (interest and expected return on assets) to adjust for operating income?

Operating income includes all pension expenses. The adjustment removes interest and expected return on plan assets from those expenses, so that the only pension expense remaining in operating income is service cost.

You can do the adjustment two ways:

  1. Remove the effects of interest and expected return on plan assets from operating income.
  2. Remove the effects of all pension expenses from operating income, then include the effect of service cost in operating income.

CFA Institute’s recommended approach is #2.

why do we remove the effect of the expected return rather than the actual return?

Look at this answer yesterday:

https://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-ii-forum/91364653

could not find the answer for my question, sorry :frowning:

you remove the effect of expected return because that’s what was used in calculating pension expense.

. . . and including the expected return does not reflect economic reality, whereas replacing it with the actual return does.