Hi all,
Please share your thoughts on the following question:
X suggests to Y that derivatives can be used as an alternative to an immediate sale a a way to reduce the risk in an over concentrated stock. But Y wishes to retain all of the security upside and minimize initial cost, X would recommend:
a) a collar
b) at ATM protective put
c) buying an OTM put and selling a further OTM put
Which strategy do you think is the correct answer? Thanks,