The reason they give 793 is that they don’t multiply by (1+r)t
Why don’t they multiply by (1+r)t to get the future value? I don’t know why they sometimes do and sometimes don’t. And it looks like other people have the same question:
I don’t get it either, I calculated 794 as well. From what I read you don’t calculate FV if it’s about preinvesting a future amount (i.e. it is already in FV terms). In this case it looks like the 350 million is a PV amount so the number of futures contracts should be based on 350*(1.005)(3/12)…
Yes it’s very unclear. I use FV only when synthetic equity/cash is asked, otherwise for changes in asset allocation, preinvesting of cash,… I use the formula with the betas.