Which of the following statements regarding Macaulay duration is correct?
For a given coupon rate, Macaulay duration can be lower for a long-term discount bond than for a short-term discount bond.
For a given time to maturity and yield to maturity, Macaulay duration is lower for a zero-coupon bond than for a low-coupon bond trading at a discount.
For a given time to maturity and yield to maturity, Macaulay duration is lower for a low-coupon bond trading at a discount than for a high-coupon bond trading at a premium.
Answer is A
but i didn’t understand how, Higher the maturity higher is the duration right?
McD - weighted average time to receipt of cash flows (Edit corrected)
Think of 20 year 10% coupon bond with YTM of 20%. Final payment has low weight as it is a long way of and heaviliy discounted. Initial coupons have a much higher weighting.(For ref McD = 6.2)
Now think of 18 10% coupon year bond with YTM 0f 1%. Final payment has a much higher weight due to low discount rate. More balance in weighting of cash flows (For ref McD = 12.1)
Macaulay duration is the weighted average time to receipt of cash flows; it’s not a weighted average of the PVs of the cash flows. The PVs of the cash flows are the weights.