Hi. I’m new this forum, and I have a question included in the subject. I need it for my BA paper, not for the CFA exams. So, eurodollar deposits’ duration is equal to its time to maturity, right? It looks very logical to me, but I’m not sure, so I am asking here.
If you get all of your money (principle and interest) at maturity, then the Macaulay duration will equal the time to maturity; the modified duration will be sightly less than that (unless the YTM is zero, which is . . . well . . . unlikely).