Hello eveyrone, On the CFA website they provide sample questions. Under the Economics chapter you have the case of Louise Tremblay. I do not understand the answer and explanation for question 3:
Country Currency Spot Exchange Rate
United States US$ NA Canada C$ 1.2138–1.2259 Brazil Real (BRL) 2.3844–2.4082
3) If a dealer’s bid-side quote for the CAD/BRL is C$0.5250, Tremblay’s profit on a US$1,000,000 initial investment in the triangular arbitrage opportunity is closest to: Anser is US$21,135 profit Explanation:
It is cheaper to buy Canadian dollars indirectly through Brazilian reals than directly with U.S. dollars. This creates a triangular arbitrage opportunity:
US$1,000,000 × 2.3844 = BRL2,384,400
2,384,400 × 0.5250 = C$1,251,810
C$1,251,810/1.2259 = US$1,021,135
US$1,021,135 – US$1,000,000 = US$21,135 profit
Can someone explain to me how the explanation knows right away that it is cheaper to buy Canadian Dollars indirectly through Brazilian reals? I mean how do they know that they have to proceed this way? Thanks a lot for your help