Hi guys, are there any differences between calculating comparative advantage in terms of cost and output. I’ve seen 2 different types of these during practice.
Labor cost per unit
x y
England 100 110
Portugal 90 80
Absolute Advantage: Portugal (because it’s cheaper)
Comparative Advantage: y - portugal (y/x = 80/90)
x - england (x/y = 100/110)
Output per unit
x y
England 600 900
Portugal 400 800
Absolute Advantage: England (because it can produce more)
Comparative Advantage: y - portugal (x/y = 400/800)
x - england (y/x = 900/600)
Notice the difference between how they use the items as numerators/denominators. In price terms, the numerator is the product itself but the same cannot be said when the question deals with outputs. Why do I have to do the inverse for output-themed questions? Thanks
So that’s why CFAI questions tend confuse me on that, I have only read the Schweser materials. Relatively easy question but I sometimes get it wrong due to this confusion. My only way of solving correctly is remembering to do the inverse for output-themed questions.
That’ s why I find curriculum more relevant (even if its calculations are wrong), because exam is held and organized by CFA Institute not by Schweser or some other 3rd party. Anyway, Schweser helped me a lot in Quant- probabilities and other difficult areas.
Gigaloo explained well… When dealing with output, yoiu want to look at the country that has the largest output as in line with he comparative advantage, while the reverse is the case with cost.