Just a quick economics question .For a developed economy, the forecasted long-term growth rate of potential GDP is 3% and the forecasted long-term inflation rate is 2%. The long-term equity market appreciation in this economy will be closest to ?
I thought that it would be same as potential gdp growth but would we add inflation?
I think when we talk about “potential GDP,” it’s always REAL GROWTH. So, I don’t think inflation should be added. Moreover, potential GDP drives REAL interest rate.
I could be wrong, but the point of potential GDP is real growth is stated in Kaplan’s book (book1, page 285)
Inflation should be added. Long-term equity price appreciation growth uses nominal GDP growth and some other components. Here’s Example 2 from CFAI pg. 606:
Decomposition of S&P 500 Returns/Growth Rate, 1946-2007