Why are we ignoring the higher sharpe ratio for Blue? higher sharpe essentially means higher level of returns for the same levels of risk so it should be more risk-efficient? It also has lower vol than March. why does # of securities hold more weight here for the "risk efficient delivery of results?
In another Q on the same exhibit, it says that Ash will minimize active risk for the final Amity equity fund based on the fact that it has a higher covariance with the present fund. But intuitively, its not making sense bc Ash has the highest active risk of the 3…ASKING FOR A FRIEND…