The book confuses me on the Size factor. Seems like an error.
In Example 7 on page 498, the dude has a negative size factor (coefficient) in the first five years, -0.30, and in the last five years this has changed to positive, +0.10. In the answer the book says, However the portfolio no longer has a small-cap tilt… Implying the -0.30 meant he had a small cap tilt.
Then in Exh 21 om p500, Product A has a Size factor of -0.29, and on the next page, Product A is said to have this characteristic; A large cap bias (a negative coeff on the Size factor).
The latter is of course correct (SMB).
Is the former wrong, or am i mistaken / misunderstandig?