In Residual Income formula derivation from DDM formula, I had a doubt.
How do you go to the second equation from the first?
V0=E1+B0−B1^(1+r)1+E2+B1−B2^(1+r)2+E3+B2−B3^(1+r)3+… (eqn 1)
This equation can be rewritten as follows:
V0= B0 +E1−rB0(1+r)^1+E2−rB1(1+r)^2+E3−rB2(1+r)^3+… (eqn 2)
I understand clean surplus equation, B0-B1 = rB0, but I just cannot understand from where this B0 came from in the second equation.
Pls help.