Regarding Q2, Part C, two reasons why tax considerations favor Ruente making a current gift to his daughter rather than transferring wealth to her upon death, the two reasons listed as follows (from the answer key).
Reason 1: Because his dauther’s income tax rate is lower than Puente’s and their pre-tax return are assumed to be the same, the future after-tax value of any gifted amount will be greater tahn if this amount stayed in Puente’ s estate. (This one I got it).
Reason 2: Because gift taxes are paid from Puente’s estate, the size of his taxable estate is reduced. (I got it to this point, but not the follows). Because his daughter’s estate will not be taxed, this lowers the ultimate estate tax that will be paid. The present value of this tax benefit is equal to the gift tax rate, multiplied by the estate tax rate, multiplied by the size of the gift.
My question is that wouldn’t his daugher’s estate be taxed either this estate is given through gift or inheritance, why there is any tax saving other than reducing Puente’s taxable estate base?
Can somebody please explain to me why his Daughter’s estate tax rate has any bearing on the answer? The answers are ripped directly from the Relative Value formula for Giftor Paying Estate Tax:
Two reasons why tax considerations favor Puente making a current gift to his daughter rather than transferring wealth to her through a bequest upon his death: • Because his daughter’s income tax rate is lower than Puente’s and their pre-tax returns are assumed to be the same, the future after-tax value of any gifted amount will be greater than if this amount stayed in Puente’s estate.
• Because gift taxes are paid from Puente’s estate, the size of his taxable estate is reduced. Because his daughter’s estate will not be taxed, this lowers the ultimate estate tax that will be paid. The present value of this tax benefit is equal to the gift tax rate, multiplied by the estate tax rate, multiplied by the size of the gift.
Wouldnt the “ultimate estate tax that will be paid” be lower REGARDLESS of the daughter’s financial situation? It is a nice tidbid, but she would get the (Tg*Te) benefit regardless in helping to determine the Relative Value. Is that sentence just fluff to secure more points?
I was not sure about this one either. The first reason:
“Reason 1: Because his dauther’s income tax rate is lower than Puente’s and their pre-tax return are assumed to be the same, the future after-tax value of any gifted amount will be greater than if this amount stayed in Puente’ s estate.”
Does not this implicitly assume that their capital gains tax rate is the same? The exercise only mention that they her income tax rate is lower than Puente, but how should we know that this is not only for ordinary income but also for capital gains that will come from the gift?