Probably dumb question but really lost on the fixed-income futures/fowards section.
I don’t understand why don’t we add in the accrued interest .0833 to the questions below? I initially did 148(1+.001)(1/12) + .0833*(1+.001)1.5/12 to get to price of t at time T and then take the difference between that and 145 and discount it back to time t. Is .0833 not needed b/c it’s already included in the forward price?? So confused
Suppose that one month ago, we purchased five euro- bund forward contracts
with two months to expiration and a contract notional of €100,000 each at a
price of 145 (quoted as a percentage of par). The euro- bund forward contract
now has one month to expiration. Again, assume the underlying is a 2% German
bund quoted at 108 and has accrued interest of 0.0833 (one- half of a month since
last coupon). At the contract expiration, the underlying bund will have accrued
interest of 0.25, there are no coupon payments due until after the forward
contract expires, and the current annualized one- month risk- free rate is 0.1%.
Based on the current forward price of 148, the value of the euro- bund forward
position will be closest to:
A €2,190.
B €14,998.
C €15,000.
Solution:
B is correct. Because we are given both forward prices, the solution is simply
Vt(T) = PVt,T[Ft(T) – F0(T)] = (148 – 145)/(1 + 0.001)1/12 = 2.9997