In Jon Lock case eoc # 5 :
The para pertaining to the q :
[question removed by moderator]
I have a problem understanding this. Why yhe interest should not be deducted on back-dated basis when they got the shares?
Because it was an allocation error by the manager, their IPS did not specify a lower cash basis than what has occured, so you do not remove the interest earned/should have earned on that front.