Hi guys,
Loyalty to the Employer is still something that blows out my mind. The books identify the “practice” as the services I currently offer for renumeration. But in the same time, in the examples regarding the guy who wants to be a major, which is not something I currently offer, they require written consent.
If I’m financial analyst and want to sell say gold, doing this only in my free time. Simple disclosure would be enough, right?
If i’m financial analyst and want to provide the same services for another firm, I should get a written consent from both employers, right?
If i’m part time trader in one company, and want to get a part time trading position at another company, I’m not allowed doing so because in this case I enter into direct competition with my current employer. Written consent should even not be requested, right?
Thanks for you help, really appreciated 
Here some previous links on the same subject, even after having read those I still find the text in the book inconsistent, espacially regarding:
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entering into independent practice,
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what “practice” actually means,
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when written consent against simple disclosure is required;
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and when disclosure is not even required, if I provide any additional service for renumeration in my spare time (building dog houses while being a financial analyst)
http://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-iii-forum/9699414
http://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-ii-forum/9988749
http://www.analystforum.com/forums/cfa-forums/cfa-level-iii-forum/9690200