excess of purchase price over book value acquired vs goodwill

CFA Level II
#1

So excess of purchase price over book value acquired is: Purchase price - (% share of the value of net assets) = excess purchase price. - excess allocated to investee’s identifiable assets and liablities based on fair value = goodwill

We have U.S GAAP, full goodwill = fair value of sub - fair value of acquired company’s identifiable net assets We have IFRS, partial goodwill = purchase price - fair value of proportion of acquired company’s identifiable net assets When do we use each of these 3 methods, i’m confused? Are excess of purchase price and goodwill under IFRS the same?

#2

This is partial goodwill.

There are only two (see above).

Use full goodwill (partial goodwill, above, divided by % purchased) for US GAAP, and for IFRS when you’re told to use full goodwill. The default under IFRS is partial goodwill.

#3

The text says that with excess of purchase price over book value acquired we use: - % share of book value of net assets With partial goodwill we use: - % share of fair value of net assets

If excess of purchase price and partial goodwill are the same, why are they using different net asset values?