Guys, I will appreciate if you could help me on this.
This is an example from Reading 23, Example-10.
When the company contributions exceed the economic expense, the anaylst should adjust the excess contribution $67 ($48 after tax) towards financing cash flow (outbound). Why is it after tax? If it is treated as an additional payment to the principal, would you pay tax?
Also, the same $60 ($48 after tax) is added to operating cash flow. I don’t understand why we add to operating cash flow?
Thanks in advance.