so a person borrows B at 5% and conveerts it to A and invests in A to make profit. When he converts B to A he is effectively increasing demand for A and decreasing demand for B so this should lead to appreciation in the currency A’s value relative to B which is agains the interest rate parity. Can somebody tell me the right mechanism as to how exactly does this happen?
Second,
Interest rate parity seems to be at odds with capital account influences which say as the interest rate rise so does the investments in the country and hencce the aggregate demand increases and thus the exchange rates. Which one is correct.
The next few days, I don’t have time to think about this in detail but I’m definitely coming back to it in a week or so… I’ll post if I end up understanding it