It is said that FCFF is better for valuating firms that are highly leveraged (compared to other methods). Why is this so?
Maybe they mean compared to FCFE?
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FCFF better because it uses WACC, and WACC would be less sensitive to changes in capital structure resulting from leverage because only a portion is affected (it also considers the affects of debt) so you’d get less volatile fluctuations perhaps
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FCFF represents CF to debt and equity holders…
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FCFE would actually change if you incorporated new debt because it includes net borrowing whereas FCFF does not
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It also incorporates interest tax shield which is a real gain that companies receive. Without the interest tax shield there would be no difference between a levered and unlevered company (MM1)
Need to use FCFF when highly leveraged (as mentioned) because you are likely to have negative FCFE.
Also use FCFF when a company has a changing capital structure because, as explained above, it will be less impacted by the change.