You dont have to read it and goto the page. Summarized it here.
Managing a funding liablity which is currently fully funded utilizing standard immunization approach for a NON CALLABLE bond. Manager is concerned with regards to Interest rate risk, contingent claim risk and cap risk.
It’s multiple choice and I would have chose only IRR and not the other two. I would understand if the security had a contingent claim provision but it’s non callable. In a falling interest rate environment he could have his coupon payments stopped by a large principal payback.
And then with Cap risk that would be associated with Floating rates involved and that’s not the case either here.
Answer has all three as risk factors for the non callable but I would only think IRR.
Don’t have the book here… But isn’t the issue here that the liability in non-callable and that the 3 risks are related to the asset, i.e. if interest rates fall, a 7% coupon bond held by the investor will be called and the investor can only reinvest in a 4% coupon bond.
The question states that the manager is using noncallable bonds to immunize a payment due in five years to fund the expansion of a hospital.
Can someone please explain specifically where contingent claim risk comes into play in this scenario? I guess I don’t understand how the liability is subject to contingent claim risk if it is already fully funded with a noncallable asset.
you have two parts … to the question … as I said before. and you are looking at the WRONG PART >>>>>>
you are looking at the assets defeasing the liabilities and saying there is NO RISK (or no cap risk because the funding has been done with non-callable bonds.).
the question – 27 specifically asks for, wait for it …
“Are Choo’s concerns regarding various risks of funding the hospital liability correct?”
which is true … the liabilities have each of the three risks - Contingent Claim risk, Cap Risk and INterest rate risk.